Re: Word use: Express/ed (Absurdity)

Subject: Re: Word use: Express/ed (Absurdity)
From: "Arlen P. Walker" <Arlen -dot- P -dot- Walker -at- JCI -dot- COM>
Date: Fri, 9 Dec 1994 09:01:00 -0500

"...without the expressed written consent of the author..." is correct because
if the author gives permission, he expresses it.

So he not only must write it, but express it *while* he writes it? Does this
mean one can have the written permission of the author *without* the author
"expressing" it? Or perhaps it needs to be written and shipped absolutely,
positively overnight to you?

And what about an author's *im*pressed written consent?

(BTW, in case you haven't guessed, I think the word is "express" rather than
"expressed," and that copyright block is simply a corruption of a phrase
constantly heard but never listened to. Sort of like the variations on the
pledge of allegiance the children say in "Kindergarten Cop.")

Have fun,
Arlen
Chief Managing Director In Charge, Department of Redundancy Department
DNRC 24

Arlen -dot- P -dot- Walker -at- JCI -dot- Com
----------------------------------------------
In God we trust; all others must provide data.
----------------------------------------------


Previous by Author: Re: MSWord problem
Next by Author: Re[2]: redundancy
Previous by Thread: PagePlus Intro
Next by Thread: Lotus Notes Maillist?


What this post helpful? Share it with friends and colleagues:


Sponsored Ads