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>Technically, in the US the period is supposed to go inside of the quotes.
>But this has always seemed illogical to me.
I have always understood that the "rule" was generated to simplify the
issue. I am not certain where the notion came from.
>When a quoted passage is enclosed within the sentence, why not indicate that
>it's well and truly enclosed? Far better in that case, I'd think, to have
>the sentence terminate at the period, where it's supposed to, and put the
>closing quote before it.
I agree and have always assumed that the "pundits" had decided that most of
us weren't smart enough to make such distinctions and so formulated the
rule to simplify the issue. My problem now, because I am curious, is to
determine where my notion comes from. (And I am wondering why I have two
copies of Strunk and White at home and not one at the office.)
