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Subject:Re: possessives [Ref:C674416] From:Geoff King <Geoff -dot- King -at- NA -dot- NWMARKETS -dot- COM> Date:Wed, 24 Dec 1997 15:02:25 +0000
But Michael, what you have written doesn't make sense. If you are
refering to Chaucer (or Middle English) you are perforce referring
to a "couple of centuries ago." (The 12th to 15th centuries.
Give or take.)
I must be missing something in this thread.
geoff -dot- king -at- na -dot- nwmarkets -dot- com
I'm not referring to a couple of centuries ago; I'm referring to Middle
English. Look at any reputable edition of Chaucer (not a translation).
This is one of my own research fields -- I don't know which other
researchers Mark is referring to, but if they've got bogged down into
"bogus archaisms" of a couple of centuries ago, they've missed the
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